Nephilim? Giants, Angels
or Men?Most Christian theologians throughout all of history interpreted that the Nephilim of the bible were the mixed progeny of the sons of Seth who took wives from the daughters of Cain. Martin Luther was no exception who had the following remarks to make:
The 'daughters of men' were the 'daughters of Cain'¹⁰¹ and the 'sons of God' were the 'sons of Adam'³². Named 'of God' for their lineage as the pure pious blessed seed³², and the other named 'of men' for being outside this lineage, known for their impious, ungodly ways¹¹¹ and their bestial²⁷ lust and desires. Luther rejected what he called Jewish fables³³ which claimed sons of God signified something celestial. The claimed large stature of Nephilim is a misinterpretation¹²¹; in Numbers 13:33 they are called giants not due to the bulk of their body¹²³, but due to their nature as brute violent oppressors¹²⁴ (tyrants) without law nor honour¹²³, only indulging their pleasure and desire¹²³, who prey upon those beneath them¹²³. The patriarchs had strictly forbidden to contract alliances with the offspring of Cain³⁰, as not to taint the nature of the sons of God via their mingling with the accursed generation of Cain³¹.References: Correspond to indexes in Luther's Works Vol. 2, Commentary On Genesis 1-6."In prohibiting marriage with the Cainites it was the chief purpose of the pious fathers to maintain their generation pure." ~
Martin Luther ¹⁰³.
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What is the underlying reason for the Cainites savage behavour? Is it merely their improper ways or is there a fundamental reason behind it?
Previously I have spoken on this [
Why did God flood the earth?], which I stated, the descendants of Cain were largely racially mixed with humanoid fauna (Preadmamites), thus are more predisposed to act in animalistic ways than their Adamic counterparts; and this is the underlying reason their mingling would corrupt. If both were wholly of the same stock, would they just not merely raise their crossed offspring together to be pious? Would this justify God to flood the Adamic world and genocide them all? If it was simply their character which was unholy, it would only make sense for God to set out the pious to evangelise the impious, not eradicate them.
It is clear they were of tainted biological stock, which we can see in scripture. Cain, a pure descendant of Adam, in exile took a wife [Gen. 4:17], however no other humans except Adam, Eve and Cain existed at this time (Abel was already murdered [Gen. 4:8]). Seth would not be born until [Gen. 4:25] and Adam's other numerous progeny not until [Gen. 5:4]. The only conclusion is Cain's wife was completely outside their lineage, his wife was humanoid fauna (nonwhite).
We see the descendants of Cain took pure Adamic spouses later on in history [Gen. 6], which likely aided in the bleaching of many Cainites and the expression of recessive genes such as pale complexion and their increased beauty; which unfortunately made them more acceptable to Adamites [Gen. 6:2].
"The sons of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose." Gen. 6:2(H2896→טבת→tbth→lit. good; fig. pleasant to sight, fair. G2570→καλαί→kalai→lit. good; fig. beautiful, fair. L×→pvlchrae→lit. beautiful, fair; fig. noble. E×→fair→light complexion)
It is interesting the English translators chose the word
fair (lit. light complexion), and it may seem like conjecture to claim they were literally seen as pale skinned to the Sethites, however it definitely says they appeared physically attractive enough (which is often synonymous with light complexion) to take as wives; which would be a product of higher Adamic admixture.
While they appeared Adamic (White) enough to Sethites to wed;
did God think so as well?No, God flooded the entire Adamic world to eradicate them.
You can never bleach nonwhites enough to be acceptable in the eyes of God.